I am so super excited to finally write this post!!! I’ve been promising since the beginning of this blog to get into some hard verses, and today is the day! Definitely going to need an outline or it will spin out of control.
Outline for today:
- That verse you saw at the game
- It’s time we all confront this verse and what it actually means
- Series outline
- Get some fire in your belly
- Part 1: John 3:16 might not mean what you’ve been told
- Forks in the road
- World
- Perish
- Have
- Everlasting life
- Conclusion
That verse you saw at the game
It’s time we all confront this verse and what it actually means
John 3:16 is the verse that you will see on big signs at sporting events:
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
This is such a big topic that I will probably need three posts to even attempt to cover it.
But here’s the bottom line:
Most conservative Christians think this verse means that God will send you to hell unless you make a decision to believe in him and accept Jesus’s sacrifice for you, i.e., accept him as your personal Savior. The people who believe this are sincere Christians who truly love God and their neighbors. I am not trying to pick a fight here. But I believe those Christians are mistaken, and Jesus is actually saying in this verse that the more you believe in him, the more you will love life. I believe a Biblical understanding of the verse gives us more peace and joy in our everyday lives than the popular, unbiblical one.
Series outline
Here are the three parts:
- John 3:16 might not mean what you’ve been told
- John 3:16 cannot mean what you’ve been told
- John 3:16 shows that you can live a victorious life now, that you can overcome those things that are gnawing away at your soul as you read this
Get some fire in your belly
One more thing, for Christians having trouble finding the motivation to dive into this with me. Remember, we all believe that the Bible is the word of God. Therefore, spending time carefully meditating on Scripture is a great investment! It helps us understand God better. It helps ensure that when we present the gospel to the world, that we give them an accurate picture. Sure, many will reject the gospel no matter how you present it. But don’t you want to make sure they reject the real thing, rather than a specious, watered-down knockoff?
Brothers and sisters, let’s put our time and energy where are mouths are. No, that doesn’t mean you have to read my blog or you are a fake. It does mean that the more you dig into the Bible, the more you study it, the more you immerse yourself in it and follow it, the happier you will be and the more genuine your discipleship will be.
Part 1: John 3:16 might not mean what you’ve been told
Forks in the road
I will admit it: It’s easy to read John 3:16 and conclude that God loves everybody and is telling everybody that they need to accept his sacrificial work or go to hell.
The problem is, it’s just as easy to read Ephesians 1:4-6 and conclude that God has a chosen people, based on his prerogative rather than ours, and did all the necessary steps to save those chosen people:
According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,
To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.
So what do we do? Some people just conclude that the Bible is flawed. In so doing, they implicitly raise an army of mind-boggling, disturbing questions about the universe, life, and morality, that IMHO are impossible to answer satisfactorily. I have in fact raised these questions to atheists and after a few rounds they literally gave up trying to answer my respectful but pointed questions. It’s a dead end.
Some Christians will simply say, “Well I believe both passages!” without laboring to truly resolve the apparent contradiction. I don’t think this is what Paul had in mind when he exhorted Timothy in II Timothy 2:15:
Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
As I said in my Who wants to be a millionaire? post, the fact is that there are easy passages and hard passages in the Bible. Since I just brought up two seemingly contradictory passages, I think it’s safe to say we are dealing with hard passages here. If you need any further proof that some passages are just going to take more work than others, consider Peter’s description (II Peter 3:16) of the writings of Paul:
As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.
I’m saying all this to convince you that carefully, prayerfully analyzing a passage in light of other passages is completely different than twisting the word of God. If you read any further, it is your responsibility to prayerfully decide for yourself which one I am doing.
There is another stumbling-block I want to confront here. You may be asking, “How could so many Christians be wrong about such an important Bible topic?” The reason this question does not bother me is because I see countless Biblical examples of the majority being wrong, and the minority being right. Read about Noah. Read about Caleb and Joshua. Read about the reception that Jesus himself encountered. The experts with their fancy degrees were wrong. The ignorant carpenter from the backwoods was right. And read this verse:
John 12:42 Nevertheless among the chief rulers also many believed on him; but because of the Pharisees they did not confess him, lest they should be put out of the synagogue:
And this verse:
[Mat 7:14 KJV] Because strait [is] the gate, and narrow [is] the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.
So, even though my whole secular career is built on years of university studies, and a couple of degrees along the way, and numbers are the foundation of the technical field that I am in, I don’t worry about numbers when it comes to who believes what. I’m not impressed by degrees. And you shouldn’t be either.
If you are still worried, I will mention that I am NOT the only one advancing the ideas you are going to read here. I learned them from the Primitive Baptists. Go ahead, google them.
So, let’s at least accord the Bible the same level of respect that we do a calculus book. If something doesn’t make sense, maybe we need to reread. Look a few pages back. Look a few pages ahead. Ask someone for help. And yes, I know this analogy breaks down if you take it too far. All analogies do that.
For the remainder of this post, we’re just going to take some of the words of John 3:16, and look at other passages where those words appear. The only thing I want to convince you of today is that the popular interpretation of John 3:16 is certainly not the only possible interpretation.
We will now examine the following words:
- World
- Perish
- Have
- Everlasting life
World
Some people see this word in John 3:16 and say, “Yup, it’s pretty clear! God loves everybody, including Adolf Hitler, Charles Manson and Jeffrey Dahmer.” But does “world” have to mean every human being who ever lived? Let’s check other usages of this word in the Bible. In other words, let the Bible interpret itself. So, here we go! BTW, I put a bunch of verses below…if you read a few of them and you are convinced, feel free to move on to the next topic 🙂
Luke 2:1
And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world should be taxed.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? No, even Caesar was not that powerful.
John 1:10
He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? No, because Peter certainly knew that Jesus was the Christ.
John 1:29
The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? If so, hell will be empty.
John 4:42
And said unto the woman, Now we believe, not because of thy saying: for we have heard him ourselves, and know that this is indeed the Christ, the Saviour of the world.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? If so, hell will be empty.
John 12:19
The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? No…the Pharisees did not go after him.
John 14:17
Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? Then everybody’s going to hell.
John 7:7
The world cannot hate you; but me it hateth, because I testify of it, that the works thereof are evil.
John 15:19
If ye were of the world, the world would love his own: but because ye are not of the world, but I have chosen you out of the world, therefore the world hateth you.
John 17:14
I have given them thy word; and the world hath hated them, because they are not of the world, even as I am not of the world.
Does “world” in the above three passages mean every human being who ever lived? That would mean the disciples hated themselves and hated Jesus. And it would mean Mary and Joseph hated Jesus.
John 17:9
I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? Impossible, because he just said at the beginning of the verse that there is a group he is praying for.
John 17:25
O righteous Father, the world hath not known thee: but I have known thee, and these have known that thou hast sent me.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? Impossible, because Peter knew Jesus was the Christ.
Acts 17:6
And when they found them not, they drew Jason and certain brethren unto the rulers of the city, crying, These that have turned the world upside down are come hither also;
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? Clearly not. It should be clear by now that the Bible uses the word “world” in the same way we do: its meaning has to be determined based on the context! Just think about the common vernacular that you say and hear every day. How often does “world” refer to every human being that ever lived?
Acts 19:27
So that not only this our craft is in danger to be set at nought; but also that the temple of the great goddess Diana should be despised, and her magnificence should be destroyed, whom all Asia and the world worshippeth.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? No…they were not claiming that every human being that ever lived was a worshipper of Diana.
II Corinthians 5:19
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? If so, hell will be empty.
Hebrews 11:7
By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved with fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is by faith.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? Then Noah condemned every human being that ever lived.
James 4:4
Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? Then I am not allowed to be friends with anybody.
I John 2:2
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? Then hell will be empty.
I John 4:14
And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? Well, I’ve been told by Arminians that Jesus was only sent to save the people that God foresaw would choose Jesus. So there’s a contradiction.
I John 5:19
And we know that we are of God, and the whole world lieth in wickedness.
Does “world” in this passage mean every human being who ever lived? Then the verse is not even internally consistent.
So, in light of all these passages, it should be clear that “world” in the Bible does not have to mean every human being who ever lived. I’m not even arguing right now that “world” in John 3:16 does not refer to every human being who ever lived. I’m just saying it doesn’t have to mean that.
Perish
Some people think “perish” in this passage means going to hell. Again, let’s look at other usages of it in the Bible and see if perish always means going to hell.
I Samuel 27:1
And David said in his heart, I shall now perish one day by the hand of Saul: there is nothing better for me than that I should speedily escape into the land of the Philistines; and Saul shall despair of me, to seek me any more in any coast of Israel: so shall I escape out of his hand.
Does “perish” in this passage mean going to hell? No, David is saying that Saul is literally going to kill him. At this point in the story, Saul has already made several attempts on David’s life. “Perish” in this passage simply refers to the event of physical death.
Matthew 8:25
And his disciples came to him, and awoke him, saying, Lord, save us: we perish.
Does “perish” in this passage mean going to hell? No, the disciples are clearly worried about losing their physical lives due to the storm. But notice something: in contrast with the previous passage, where David uses the future tense (“I shall now perish one day”), the disciples use the present tense: “We perish”. What’s my point? David uses “perish” to describe an event; the disciples use it to describe a process. In natural terms, the event is irreversible, whereas the process is reversible. Here is another passage where “perish” describes a process:
Luke 15:17
And when he came to himself, he said, How many hired servants of my father’s have bread enough and to spare, and I perish with hunger!
Does “perish” in this passage mean going to hell? No, it is again being used to describe the process of physical death (but not the event of physical death). Keep the distinction between the event of death and the process of death in mind for later.
I Corinthians 8:11
And through thy knowledge shall the weak brother perish, for whom Christ died?
Does “perish” in this passage mean going to hell? If so, then our decisions as Christians may lead to other Christians losing their salvation. But it is impossible to lose your salvation, according to John 10:27-28:
My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall NEVER PERISH, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
So, again, perish is a word that has to be decoded based on the context. It clearly cannot mean “going to hell” every time it appears.
Have
“Aw, seriously, we need to redefine the word ‘have’? You gotta be kidding me, The Form Of The Fourth!”
No, I am dead serious. Please hear me out, I beg you.
Some people see the word “have” in John 3:16 and interpret it to mean that you are obtaining something that you previously did not possess in any way, shape, or form. Let’s test this out with Scripture.
(BTW I just figured out a niftier way to copy verses 🙂 Thanks blueletterbible!)
[Mar 11:22 KJV] And Jesus answering saith unto them, Have faith in God.
Does “have” in this passage mean they need to obtain something that they previously did not possess in any way, shape or form? Problem with that interpretation is that he is talking to his disciples here. Yes, I know they were a frustrating bunch to deal with, but the fact remains that earlier in the same book of Mark we read:
[Mar 8:29 KJV] And he saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am? And Peter answereth and saith unto him, Thou art the Christ.
So Peter must have had faith. Not convinced? In the next verse, Jesus explicitly states that Peter had faith (because “little faith” is NOT the same thing as no faith):
[Mat 14:31 KJV] And immediately Jesus stretched forth [his] hand, and caught him, and said unto him, O thou of little faith, wherefore didst thou doubt?
And here are two more references showing that Peter was not the only disciple who had at least some faith:
[Mat 8:26 KJV] And he saith unto them, Why are ye fearful, O ye of little faith? Then he arose, and rebuked the winds and the sea; and there was a great calm.
[Mat 16:8 KJV] [Which] when Jesus perceived, he said unto them, O ye of little faith, why reason ye among yourselves, because ye have brought no bread?
Now, go back to this verse:
[Mar 11:22 KJV] And Jesus answering saith unto them, Have faith in God.
Ask yourself…is there any possible alternative meaning to Jesus’s statement besides saying that the disciples had zero faith and needed to somehow acquire faith?
The other problem with the idea that “have” in Mark 11:22 means “get something that you currently do not possess at all” is this verse:
[Heb 12:2 KJV] Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of [our] faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.
If Jesus is the author of their faith, how can he put it on them to implant faith in themselves, where there was none previously?
Now let’s think about our common vernacular again. It’s amazing how quickly we forget our own figures of speech when we sit down to read the Bible.
“Let’s start bringing home-cooked meals to the Andersons, because Jane is about to have a baby”.
Does this mean a baby is about to suddenly materialize? No. The baby is about to exit Jane’s womb. Jane will soon “have” the baby in a more vivid way than when she was pregnant. Do you see the continuum involved here? In our everyday speech, and in the Bible, dichotomous, binary language is used to describe things that actually operate on a continuum. This is crucial to keep in mind when you are trying to understand the Bible…or almost any other book.
Everlasting life
Some people think that “everlasting life” and “eternal life” always refer to heaven. The afterlife.
But our understanding of these terms has a LOT of implications for our daily lives, and the way we evangelize. So we need to think about this carefully before we go charging off with it. You know the drill by now. Let’s survey the passages that use these terms.
But first, let’s establish something that I hope we all agree on already as Christians. Salvation is not by works:
[Rom 6:23 KJV] For the wages of sin [is] death; but the gift of God [is] eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
[Rom 11:6 KJV] And if by grace, then [is it] no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if [it be] of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.
[Eph 2:8-9 KJV] For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast.
[Tit 3:5 KJV] Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
So, any interpretation that leads to works-based salvation is flawed. OK…now let’s figure out if “everlasting life” and “eternal life” always mean heaven, so help us God.
[Jhn 3:36 KJV] He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.
Is “everlasting life” strictly referring to heaven here? If so, wouldn’t is make more sense to say “shall have” rather than “hath”? “Hath” is the third person present tense of the word have. Doesn’t sound like something off in the future to me. Or, if it was referring to heaven, why didn’t he say “hath the right to eternal life”?
[Jhn 6:27 KJV] Labour not for the meat which perisheth, but for that meat which endureth unto everlasting life, which the Son of man shall give unto you: for him hath God the Father sealed.
Is “everlasting life” strictly referring to heaven here? Careful, because the first word in the verse is “Labour”. Is he saying we are supposed to work to get into heaven? But we just showed that’s unbiblical.
[Gal 6:6-10 KJV] Let him that is taught in the word communicate unto him that teacheth in all good things. Be not deceived; God is not mocked: for whatsoever a man soweth, that shall he also reap. For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the flesh reap corruption; but he that soweth to the Spirit shall of the Spirit reap LIFE EVERLASTING. And let us not be weary in well doing: for in due season we shall reap, if we faint not. As we have therefore opportunity, let us do good unto all [men], especially unto them who are of the household of faith.
Is “life everlasting” strictly referring to heaven here? Then, again, you are creating a serious problem by accepting works-based salvation. Read the surrounding verses again. He is clearly talking about doing good works here. That is the context. This is not about believing or having faith. It’s about the rubber meeting the road. It’s about saddling up a pony and RIDING it. By the way, if the word “communicate” is unclear in this context, read Philippians 4, or the second I Timothy reference further down. You will see that it refers to giving money or goods…not words.
[1Ti 6:11-12 KJV] But thou, O man of God, flee these things; and follow after righteousness, godliness, faith, love, patience, meekness. Fight the good fight of faith, lay hold on eternal life, whereunto thou art also called, and hast professed a good profession before many witnesses.
Is “eternal life” strictly referring to heaven here? If so, why is Paul telling Timothy to get something he already has? Remember, Timothy is already a “man of God”, according to the first few words of the passage. So he is already going to heaven. Is it possible that “lay hold on eternal life” refers to a different experience/manifestation/outwo
[1Ti 6:17-19 KJV] Charge them that are rich in this world, that they be not highminded, nor trust in uncertain riches, but in the living God, who giveth us richly all things to enjoy; That they do good, that they be rich in good works, ready to distribute, willing to communicate; Laying up in store for themselves a good foundation against the time to come, that they may lay hold on eternal life.
Is “eternal life” strictly referring to heaven here? Same problem as above. You are tying yourself down to works-based salvation. Unless you will admit that “lay hold on eternal life” means something besides going to heaven, you are creating a massive inconsistency in the Bible, and I don’t think you want to do that.
Conclusion
All I tried to show today is that the popular interpretation of John 3:16 is not the slam dunk people think it is. I didn’t even try to show that the popular interpretation is wrong. I just tried to show it’s not the only reasonable way to understand this verse. I did this by examining how the words of John 3:16 are used in other passages. In Part 2, I will try to show the popular interpretation is actually wrong. Namely, that it basically demolishes any consistent Biblical understanding of salvation. Thanks for reading!
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